ONE OF CHARLES C. RYRIE's DECEPTIONS
EXPOSED
In Dr. Ryrie's revised edition of Dispensationalism, [copyright 1995, Moody Press]
on pages 205 and 206 we find the following statements:
Note the above highlighted portion, it contains a quote from the book,
A DISPENSATIONAL THEOLOGY, by Charles F. Baker [Grace Bible
Publications, 2d ed. 1971; page 502]. Dr. Ryrie follows the quote with;
"...however, he insists that it [i.e. the preposition en] cannot be translated the
same way in all instances, thus proving two baptisms."
What Dr. Ryrie does not share is the full text and proof, a very good proof
that Ryrie could not deal with, so Ryrie did not mention the powerful facts
opposing his partial and misrepresentative "quote". Below is more of the
context of the portion quoted, in most of its context, page 502 of Baker's
classic work on a true Dispensationalism, [pages 503 and 504 follow]
Note that Baker indicates that "...if it can be proved". Ryrie cannot and does not
prove that the preposition MUST be translated the same in such situations.
In fact, Baker, then on pages 503 and 504 of A DISPENSATIONAL THEOLOGY,
puts forth an essay by the then living Vernon Schutz.
Below is Schutz's reply to the
empty claims of Dr. Ryrie. As I understand it, Ryrie never did or could reply
to Schutz. Schutz's reply is short, so slowly read it all, and concentrate, it is
utter simplicity, very clear.
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Dr. Ryrie concedes that en can sometimes mean "with," "by," or "in," but he asks us to face the "possibility that in both instances it does mean the same and refers to the same baptism." Since Dr. Ryrie has coupled two ideas together let us examine them one at a time. His plea to us rests partially on the basis that we translate en "consistently" in both cases since "it is used in exactly the same phrase with the Spirit." But we do not always translate en the same way simply because it is used in the same phrase with the same noun. For instance, would you always translate the preposition en when used with the noun heaven "IN heaven?" Would you translate Matthew 5:34, "Swear not at all; neither IN heaven," or "Swear not at all; neither BY heaven?" Does Christ tell us not to swear IN heaven? How much sense does that make? Obviously we must translate en "BY" here.
from TRUTH magazine, 1969, Vol. XIX, No. 3, page 57. Titled: "An Answer to an Analysis of Our Position". By the late pastor Vernon A. Schutz. [profiled on this website on the PEOPLES/PLACES link]. |
Thus Vernon Schutz makes his case. A simple one, it is. He does not delve deeply into
grammatical categories (such as instrument/agency, patient, sphere et al)
but does he need to?
His use of "sense" implies common sense, as well as a mature
grammatical sense.
In I Corinthians 12:13, the SPIRIT is the baptizing agent, He - THE SPIRIT- puts
each elected person INTO the body of Christ [with no water involved!].
In Acts 1:5, we know that it
was Jesus Christ Who put the Spirit in them - Acts 2:4
(they were filled - aorist passive), and John 1:33, Jesus baptizes
WITH the Holy Spirit; Mark 1:8 and others! Usually kingdom signs accompanied
these types of Acts/Pentecostal baptisms. There are numerous
other baptisms in the Bible, contray to popular Baptist shillings.
© copyright 2006, by Mr. Gary S. Dykes
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